bewellplus.gsu.edu
Frooj Frooj
  • 13-02-2017
  • Mathematics
Answered

Is the inverse of a function always a function? explain your answer please

Verified Answer :

andriansp andriansp
  • 22-02-2017

no, i don't think so

In a function, one value of x is only assigned to one value of y

It's okay if you can get the same y value from two x value, but that mean that inverse can't be a function.

y = x^2 is a function

but inverse y = +/- √x   is not

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