Verified Answer :

MathG33k

No because mixed numbers need atleast a one and a fraction to be a mixed number. But if there was a fraction then it couldn't equal two, because of the 1's

calculista

Let

\(x=3\frac{1}{2} \\ \\ y=-1\frac{1}{2}\)

Find the sum of the mixed numbers x and y

\((x+y)=3\frac{1}{2}+(-1\frac{1}{2})\\ \\(x+y)=2\)

therefore

the answer is

Yes, the sum of two mixed numbers be equal to \(2\), only if you include a negative mixed number