Which of the following best describes why the Fairness Doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television?

The FCC had already repealed the Fairness Doctrine in the 1960s due to several court cases brought about in light of the coverage of the Vietnam War.

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

Explanation:

The Fairness Doctrine was a policy of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), the Broadcasting and Communications Regulatory Authority in the United States, first used in 1949. It required licensees in the broadcasting sector to present them in an "honest and balanced manner (between different points of view) when reporting controversial topics of public interest". The doctrine was highly controversial for the duration of its validity, until it was revoked in 1987.

camcamt18 camcamt18 · Answer 2 · 2020-05-28T09:47:18-04:00

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28-05-2020

Answer:

Your answer is The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

Explanation:

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